"labour share" and worker exploitation

I am trying to gather empirical evidence of the extent of  exploitation in capitalism (in the Marxian sense to signify to signify unpaid or surplus  labour)

Here is an  example – according to Bonnie Kavoussi in an article published in 2012 entitled the “Average Cost Of A Factory Worker In The U.S., China And Germany”, data provided by the Bureau of Labor Statistics reveals that U.S. factory workers produce on average $73.45 per hour in output whilst the average hourly wage these workers receive is only $23.32 (https://www.huffpost.com/entry/average-cost-factory-worker_n_1327413). In other words, approximately two thirds of the added value of what these workers produce they do not receive payment for.

Do people here have other examples?

There is also an indicator called “labour share”  of national income.  This is generally higher than the approximate figure of  one 33 percent relating to US manufacturing workers mentioned above – more like 50 percent or more.  I am assuming this is because the latter figure, unlike with the manufacturing sector, includes a large number of unproductive workers who do not create surplus value but are financed out of surplus value.   They would not contribute to national income but will still have to be paid for, thus  pushing up the labour share.   Though they do not contribute to national income they are still vital to the effective functioning of capitalism

There is a useful article here on the subject of labour share:

https://www.oecd.org/g20/topics/employment-and-social-policy/The-Labour-Share-in-G20-Economies.pdf

It is worth mentioning that  between 1979 and 2018, the gap between productivity growth and the growth in wages of American workers as a whole steadily widened, the former having grown by 69.3 per cent and the latter by a mere 11.6 percent over this period, greatly exacerbating a secular trend towards rising inequality in that country. https://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/